
Originally Posted by
thegodfather
My reponses will not be from the viewpoint of what a god did or what it intended. Afraid i have no competence in that area.
Question/Theory 1: Men have existed on Earth for somewhere over 50,000 years. Why is it that God/The Bible decided to show itself only in the last 3,500? Where was God and the Bible for the 45,000+ years or so beforehand?
Homo sapiens is well over 150,000 years old. The line, going back to the split from a common ancestor with the Pan line, is 7-8 million years ago, if I remember correctly.
The "Bible" (assuming you mean the Judaic/Christain Scripture), has parts from 5500 BN (Sumeria) and since then, from a variety of cultures in the Middle East. The "New Testament" was written between the early second century AD, and the end of the 4th century AD. (Councils of Nicea and Constantinople being important. Then for a couple hundred more years you have the drafting of the Vulgate bibles.
Question/Theory 2: ... RATIONAL reason as to why we must suffer for the errors of people 3,500 years ago I am all ears....
There is no rationale reason, so i would not expect one could find one. But human behavior is not always rational, nor necessarily are its customs, beliefs, and institutions.
Question/Theory 3: ... this book was written ... in a language (Arabic) where some words do not even exist in the English language, and then other words even have more than one meaning. How can anyone be assured they are recieving an interpretation they were meant to hear? Also, add to the fact that this book was written before the invention a modern printing press, does anyone think that a book well over a thousand pages was copied word for word without one single error...
different parts of the book were written in different languages. Some parts were written in multiple languages. Nearly all parts started as oral traditions and were later, written down.
For the most part, it goes:
Hebrew, Armahic, Greek, Latin.
In the 9th century, it was first translated to Arabic, and medeval spanish Hebrew, in Cordoba.
In the 14th century, it started to tranlated into most European Languages. In the 17th century it was tranlated from these into many, many languages.
There is no way to determine which versions are for sure earliest (though there is a general chronology developed over time by historians). And you are correct. The number of meaning changes, from version to version, translation to translation, is huge.
For instance, in Genesis, Eve is called a helpmate for adam. The word actually used in the older Hebrew means "friendly adversary". And, in old Hebrew, Ha' Satan is not a prper noun, and it means "the adversary". It was later translated as a proper noun, or name. Etc Etc.
Also, the Catholic church edited ...
Everybody edits it...
Question/Theory 4: ..."Evolution cant be true because it disagrees with what is written in Genesis,..."Why do you have to interpret it so literally?" ...
How literally or metaphorically the bible is interpreted ebbs and flows through time and cultures. sometimes it is a big deal, sometimes not. In ancient times, people seem to have been able to hold mythos (stories of meaning) and emprical knowledge as separate ways of knowing, without conflict. It seems that over the last 1000 years or so, in some parts of the world, people do not seem interested in doing that.
Yes, if you require literal interpretation according to our current view of the words used, you will be in for a bumpy ride re most of science. The current hubbub (in the U.S.) arises primarily from the document called, "The Fundementals of Faith", from i think it was called The Niagara Conference of 1878. It was called by conservative evangelical christains in response to the publication of "The Decent of Man", and as they put it, creeping modernism. It coined the modern usuage of the word "fundamentalist", and declared, among other things, the necessity of literal interpretation.
Question/Theory 5: ...Religion is big business,
Yes, and it probably always has been. Being it does not deal with the empirical, you can not be wrong.
Question/Theory 6: ...If someone could explain how this makes any rational sense, please do.
To paraphrase May West, rationality has nothing to do with it. But it does sound like some folks i have known.
Question/Theory 7: Why would God create... Why would he create all of this temptation and then say, ok dont do this, even though its pleasurable. ...
Don't know about god(s), but the use of double binds in spirtual practices is very common. You will find them in stories about Jesus, Buddha, among others. They can aide in contemplation.
Some have theorized that man wrote the bible and the idea of monogamy because they were not Alpha males and felt threatened because they could not compete. I think its a viable idea...
There is not a whole lot in the "Bible" about monogamy actually. Who do not really run into it until early midde ages western European/Mediterrainian interpretations. And those cultures (Greco-Roman) were alread monogamous.