I was thinking. Let’s say you want to work out the gravitational attraction between two spheres. So you use the formula F = Gm1m2/r^2. That means you take it as if each body is attracted towards a point mass r distance away. But when you think about it, the resultant force coming from the mass at the horizons would have to be converted with Pythagoras to get the linear attraction in the direction of the centre of mass. Also, the other side of the body is farther away from you than the closer part. So how does that work? Does it all cancel out exactly as if Pythagorean conversions of the field lines were done from all points on each body? Maybe a stupid question :?