Notices
Results 1 to 2 of 2

Thread: Faraday's Law

  1. #1 Faraday's Law 
    Forum Freshman
    Join Date
    Aug 2006
    Location
    Australia
    Posts
    20
    I am confused about the implications of Faraday's law. As i understand the law, emf is 0 if the rate of change of the cutting of magnetic flux = 0.

    Does this mean that if a magnet is moving at a constant velocity through a uniform magnetic field created by a solenoid, that no emf will register?


    Reply With Quote  
     

  2.  
     

  3. #2  
    Guest
    If you have a coil made from an electrical conductor and you subject it to a constant magnetic field no emf will be induced whilst the magnetic flux is constant. Any change in magnetic flux will produce an induced EMF.

    If you have an energised solenoid and you pass a magnet through it then some emf will be produced. THis is simply because the magnet's field will distort the solenoid's mostly by affecting it's density. You could prove this by monitoring the solenoid current and experimenting with the magnet.

    As you will know the full set of equations for the actual set-up you have are complex. The works of Faraday, Maxwell and Lenz are all involved here.


    Reply With Quote  
     

Bookmarks
Bookmarks
Posting Permissions
  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •