Am I right to say that the sum of the angular momenta of two point masses is equals to the angular momentum about their barycenter?
Thanks.
Edit: I think I am wrong...

Am I right to say that the sum of the angular momenta of two point masses is equals to the angular momentum about their barycenter?
Thanks.
Edit: I think I am wrong...
If my memory is good (and it is no more ), the angular momentum of a set of particles about a given axis is the sum of the angular momentum of each particules (about the same axis). So, no need of having the axis passing through the barycenter.
Angular momentum is always calculated with reference to some axis of rotation. If you choose the barycenter as your axis to calculate the sum of the angular momenta, then yes, otherwise no.
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