Ok, I generally have a grasp of some of the experiments that led to quantum theory. What I am stuck on is the wavefuntion PSI(p)=Aexp(-ipx/h) and where it came from. I understand the following:
1. Euler's formula
2. That (PSI)^2 is the probability of finding a particle at x when PSI is normalized
Why is it that we must have an imaginary portion of the wavefunction?