When does the law apply to parties embroiled, or rather involved in a dispute? More than ever, I believe, when the parties are not in conflict, and when one party does not believe, that the other has been unfair, as a party to the dispute. The law may otherwise pass judgment through the law courts, but will all parties to the difference or dispute feel that the judgment has been fair to them, at all times? The sanctity of law is only apparent to those, who have no vested interest. Let us take the Israeli dispute against the Palestinians. If the dispute was in the law courts, and if Israel had been made to be party to Palestinian nationhood, would Israel have complied? I believe, perhaps, events would have made Israel to wage war. There is no law for nations to resolve outstanding issues amicably, because nations don't want such a law. Because of the unhappiness in international affairs, or indifference at best, the state of affairs reflects in internal affairs of the state. Because there is no basis of amicable law, internationally, nations have no real impetus, to make people accept the laws of the nation, amicably.