Not being bothered about how big infinity is , can following doubts be cleared ?
If difference between zero and one is one ,
Is it possible that , the difference between (infinity/2) and its next number is also ONE.

Not being bothered about how big infinity is , can following doubts be cleared ?
If difference between zero and one is one ,
Is it possible that , the difference between (infinity/2) and its next number is also ONE.
Infinity is not a real number and cannot be used as one, so the question makes no sense (nor does the successor of infinity).
The first infinity is the number of integers.
The next infinity(*) is the number of reals. This is infinitely larger than the first infinity.
(*) Probably. This has not been proved.
series of numbers from 1,2,3,4...................x , difference between each is one. no infinity. X is finite .
12 =1
21 =1
(x/2)((x/2) + 1) = ?
((x/2)1)  (x/2) = ?
Last edited by Strange; December 11th, 2013 at 05:25 AM. Reason: corrected signs ...
n  (n + 1) = (n  n)  1 = 1
For all values of n (x/2, x/4, etc.)
n  (n  1) = (n  n) + 1 = 1(( x/4)((x/4)1) = ?
For all values of n (x/2, x/4, etc.)
I have no idea what you think the problem is. This is basic arithmetic. (Although, embarrassingly, I got the signs wrong in the previous post ... )do you have any idea , what's going on here ?
Just to throw a spanner in the works , for a conditionally convergent infinite series such as:
rearranging the terms can alter the sum.
Thanks for making me relive an embarrassing moment from an undergraduate maths class, where I got this wrong on an exam. The series was presented in a rearranged form. I rerearranged it into the form above, thinking that I was terribly clever to have done so, and wrote down "the" answer by inspection.
I cringe whenever I recall it. Thanks a lot.
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