Originally Posted by

**JohnWisp**
Can you please explain specifically how this justifies what the OP posted? Please use 1 to infinity for your explanation.

He is actually asking how you sum up parts of a whole out to infinity and arrive at a number greater than the entire whole out to infinity if you did not get that.

No, that's not what he is asking. He may think that's what he's asking, but he's not.

When approximating an integral by a sum, the latter may (subject to the standard caveats regarding convergence criteria) converge to the former if the successive intervals in the summation are "sufficiently small." With a coarse unit difference in the interval here, one should not expect the two to be equal.

I don't know why you have a problem with mathman's argument. He shows how you can decompose the comparison problem into a sequence of comparisons, unit interval by unit interval.