Hence, 0=1 ???
What rule have I broken, or not obeyed?? Surely this isn't right lol.

Hence, 0=1 ???
What rule have I broken, or not obeyed?? Surely this isn't right lol.
Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???
You are misapplying the logarithm.Originally Posted by sox
It doesn't work for higher powers for complex numbers either  think about Euler's formula.
Also, I believe that, to reach that solution, you would have to do a division by 0, which is not allowed, my friend. :wink: . Also, if no division by 0 occurs, I conclude that you would get 0=0 for an answer.
Originally Posted by sox
Again, only works if you divide by zero.
Let f(x)=1^x. This function is independent of x. As someone has observed, you can take logs to get xlog(1) which is independent of x. However log(1)=0, so you can't conclude anything.
1 to the power 0 is basically 1 X 0
anything times 0 will always = 0 (because there are zero copies of the number)
0=0 because multiplying any number by zero, is really just multiplying zero by zero
Anything to the power 0 is 1, not 0. (Edit: except 0^0, which is undefined.)
You're claiming that if , then x = y.Originally Posted by sox
That would be true for positive since, after taking logarithms of both sides, you'd get
, and therefore x = y. But if a=1, log(a) =0, so you can have
for any x,y.
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