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  1. #1 Is this allowed? 
    sox
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    Hence, 0=1 ???

    What rule have I broken, or not obeyed?? Surely this isn't right lol.



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  3. #2  
    sox
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    Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???



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  4. #3  
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    Quote Originally Posted by sox
    Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???
    You are misapplying the logarithm.

    It doesn't work for higher powers for complex numbers either -- think about Euler's formula.
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    Also, I believe that, to reach that solution, you would have to do a division by 0, which is not allowed, my friend. :wink: . Also, if no division by 0 occurs, I conclude that you would get 0=0 for an answer.
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  6. #5  
    Forum Junior TheDr.Spo's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by sox
    Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???

    Again, only works if you divide by zero.
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  7. #6  
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    Let f(x)=1^x. This function is independent of x. As someone has observed, you can take logs to get xlog(1) which is independent of x. However log(1)=0, so you can't conclude anything.
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  8. #7  
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    1 to the power 0 is basically 1 X 0

    anything times 0 will always = 0 (because there are zero copies of the number)

    0=0 because multiplying any number by zero, is really just multiplying zero by zero
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  9. #8  
    Forum Radioactive Isotope MagiMaster's Avatar
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    Anything to the power 0 is 1, not 0. (Edit: except 0^0, which is undefined.)
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  10. #9 Re: Is this allowed? 
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    Quote Originally Posted by sox




    Hence, 0=1 ???

    What rule have I broken, or not obeyed?? Surely this isn't right lol.
    You're claiming that if , then x = y.

    That would be true for positive since, after taking logarithms of both sides, you'd get

    , and therefore x = y. But if a=1, log(a) =0, so you can have

    for any x,y.
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