1. Hence, 0=1 ???

What rule have I broken, or not obeyed?? Surely this isn't right lol.

2.

3. Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???

4. Originally Posted by sox
Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???
You are misapplying the logarithm.

It doesn't work for higher powers for complex numbers either -- think about Euler's formula.

5. Also, I believe that, to reach that solution, you would have to do a division by 0, which is not allowed, my friend. :wink: . Also, if no division by 0 occurs, I conclude that you would get 0=0 for an answer.

6. Originally Posted by sox
Works for higher powers too. So 0=everything? Whats the implication???

Again, only works if you divide by zero.

7. Let f(x)=1^x. This function is independent of x. As someone has observed, you can take logs to get xlog(1) which is independent of x. However log(1)=0, so you can't conclude anything.

8. 1 to the power 0 is basically 1 X 0

anything times 0 will always = 0 (because there are zero copies of the number)

0=0 because multiplying any number by zero, is really just multiplying zero by zero

9. Anything to the power 0 is 1, not 0. (Edit: except 0^0, which is undefined.)

10. Originally Posted by sox

Hence, 0=1 ???

What rule have I broken, or not obeyed?? Surely this isn't right lol.
You're claiming that if , then x = y.

That would be true for positive since, after taking logarithms of both sides, you'd get

, and therefore x = y. But if a=1, log(a) =0, so you can have

for any x,y.

 Bookmarks
##### Bookmarks
 Posting Permissions
 You may not post new threads You may not post replies You may not post attachments You may not edit your posts   BB code is On Smilies are On [IMG] code is On [VIDEO] code is On HTML code is Off Trackbacks are Off Pingbacks are Off Refbacks are On Terms of Use Agreement