I have found an interesting "proof" that i would like to see someone here disprove. It runs as follows:

1=√1

1=-1*-1 then

1=√-1*-1

since √A*B=√A*√B

1=√-1*√-1

since √-1=i

1=i*i=i^2 so

1=i^2=-1 thus

1=-1

Q.E.D. 8)

I am not really sure how that can be disputed, lol.