I have found an interesting "proof" that i would like to see someone here disprove. It runs as follows:
1=√1
1=-1*-1 then
1=√-1*-1
since √A*B=√A*√B
1=√-1*√-1
since √-1=i
1=i*i=i^2 so
1=i^2=-1 thus
1=-1
Q.E.D. 8)
I am not really sure how that can be disputed, lol.