
Originally Posted by
Harold14370

Originally Posted by
Achilleas
But, due to the competition between various sectors of production, r and i tend to equalize (even asymptotically) and form the general rate of profit.
Also, other factors like circulation time of capital, devaluation of capital etc, may transform the above ratio but in a tiny and most importantly, predictable way.
Empirically, this theory (the so called labour theory of value, in its various expressions) give very accurate estimations of market prices. If you need a more formal, yet technical description, I can post some free papers or give references for many more.
That's why prices are not determined by costs but actually the other way around:
if p= price, then
αp= costs
(1-α)p= profit, where 0<α<1
That means, if wages are raised then α raises as well. That doesn't necessarily lead to an increase in price. It just means that the distribution has changed, thus, ceteris paribus, % of profit has changed.
Of course, that doesn't mean that costs and prices are not correlated at all. Market power, market concentration and other factors allow the producers to permanently change their price if costs raise as well. Also, the above estimator is a long-run estimator. That means that in certain times, actual market price may vary from the value of the commodity. But there is a strong tendency to equalize these 2 quantities.
For the last argument, keep in mind that low paid workers tend to spend all their income. If Bill Gates earn 400$ more, he will probably not spend it since he already has billions.
Or maybe he will give some to charity and maybe he will invest in new enterprises? Investment is a good thing isn't it? isn't that how new businesses get started?
What matters more than investment money is anticipation of demand. It probably matters 100 times more.
If you can't anticipate demand, then you don't anticipate being able to pay back your investors......... so even if your investor had a trillion trillion trillion dollars on tap waiting to invest, they wouldn't sign any of it over to you.
Indeed that is exactly what we see in our present recession. Investors can't find anywhere to put their money. There is so much excess capital out there, and so few viable business ventures to put it in that the US treasury is currently able to sell T-bills at negative real interest (interest known to be less than inflation.)

Originally Posted by
Harold14370
This leads to an imbalance, in various industrial rates of profit. Industries who focus on consumer goods will be benefited from the excess profitability. On the long term through the adjustments in demand and supply prices will fall again because more enterprises will enter the more profitable consumer goods market thus the price will be reduced again.
It still isn't making sense to me. Increasing the minimum wage only increases the demand by the people who have had their income increased. The demand from those who had their income reduced will be less because they have less purchasing power. This may include the owner of a small business who has to pay the higher wage, the higher paid workers who had their pay cut to balance the payroll, or the investor who will end up with a smaller nest egg at retirement.
The bigger issue is eliminating the competition toward lowest wage among workers. Once you've set a floor they're not allowed to go under, they're left to compete for quality instead.
When workers are competing for lowest wage (lowest price), their incomes are racing downward, forcing prices of goods to chase after them and keep going down. That's going to lead to deflation.
If there is a minimum wage, and it keeps getting raised, then prices of goods will be raising, leading to inflation. However, it doesn't need to keep getting raised. Once the wage is at the ideal level, it can just sit there (The ideal level being the level where the average worker is making enough money to buy luxury goods in sufficient volume to keep their peers employed making luxury goods).
We're not forced to choose between a downward spiral and an upward spiral. That's a false dichotomy.

Originally Posted by
Harold14370

Originally Posted by
dan hunter
Just using the average can be tricky without looking at the mode and the median as well as the mean. If you have nothing but a massive number of peasants and a few aristocrats there can be a problem even though looking at the average income makes it seem like the economy is doing wonderful. Without a decent sized middle class not only is the economy restricted and unstable the country is unstable too.
I'm not even going to look up the statistics on this. For the first few years of my life, we lived in a house with an outhouse. We didn't have a TV until I was about 7 years old, and it was a black and white TV that got 3 fuzzy channels. I remember the old party line phones, where you picked up the receiver and told the operator what number you were calling. In my grade school, we had two grades that shared a teacher and classroom. There was no cafeteria- we packed brown bag lunches. I shared a bed with one of my brothers for quite a few years. We didn't have air conditioning. And, I'd say we were a middle class family. So, I've seen the changes with my own eyes. Don't try to tell me the median hasn't gone up.
If people lived like that today, it would require massive unemployment. The biggest impact of technological increase has been to reduce the number of workers needed to produce the same items. If today we accepted a wage that only bought the things listed, we would only be paying for a small fraction of the wages you were paying.
In terms of worker hours, you probably owned just as many worker hours worth of production as a more affluent person owns today. It's just that today those work hours achieve more production.